Why Would You Use an Opioid Agonist-Antagonist?
Question by T: Why would you use an opioid agonist-antagonist?
I am currently taking a pharmacology course and my professor has yet to e-mail me back. I’m wondering why opioid agonist-antagonists (aka “partial agonists” or “mixed agonists”) are used rather than simply using low doses of opioid agonists?
I know that opioid agonist-antagonists have a “ceiling effect” so they are often given to opioid addicts and women in labor. Does the ceiling effect have something to do with why opioid agonist-antagonists are chosen over low doses of opioid agonists sometimes?
Thank you!
Tiffany
PS: I always choose a best answer. I won’t leave you guys in limbo, ha!
Best answer:
Answer by A
I used brupenorphine (Subutex, or Suboxone there in the US) to get off of heroin. It eased the withdrawals but also blocked the effects of heroin, making it completely pointless to buy some. That was eight years ago and I’ve been free of all opiates since then, this is something that another opiate like methadone could never have helped me to achieve, that stuff just made me more addicted than ever instead.
Edit: Good answer Jared. I hadn’t realised that Suboxone contained naloxone too, so far as I know only Subutex or methadone is prescribed here in the UK, well that was the situation back then anyway.
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