Question by Matthew: I am doing a debate in Social Studies, I’m wondering if police “abuse” has ever lost a obviously guilty case?
Example: An officer beats a man who just committed a crime, but had not attacked but surrendered.
The officer saw the crime, but would the beating effect the case in anyway?
Best answer:
Answer by Lexie
I’m sure it happens. I’ve had cases where the defense tried to make it look like the cops had used excessive force. Legally, it doesn’t make a bit of difference so far as the defendant’s guilt, but they try to do it anyway in order to outrage the jury so they will acquit the defendant to “punish” the police.
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