Date Rape Definition and Alcohol: College?
Question by matt: date rape definition and alcohol: College?
Hi everyone. Last year I took a human sexuality class and one subject that came up was “date rape” and specifically how alcohol at parties affects people’s judgements and their ability to give consent.
In class there was a large difference of opinion on what the line between “date rape” and making a bad choice. The interesting thing about the breakdown was that there wasn’t a major difference in opinion based on gender or based on age.
I am a discussion leader for small groups for the class and the topic is coming up again. I will of course talk about the legal definition of date rape (which is if any amount of alcohol is in your system and someone hooks up with you they have raped you) however I want to get viewpoints on what people consider to be the moral definition of “date rape”.
Does small amounts of alcohol inhibit one from giving consent? Does age come into consideration? If one is under 21 and drinks is the perpetrator more at fault than if that person is over the drinking age. What about “date rape” within relationships or marriage? Does a glass of wine before bed make it so your significant other or even your spouse cannot get frisky with you? Does a person giving consent before they drink make it acceptable to have sex with them while they are intoxicated? Does a person giving positive signals before they were intoxicated change anything?
I know the legal definition to all of these questions are that rape occurs if the person has had any alcohol. But I am interested in seeing the community’s response as I have heard from some people that this is just as bad as typical rape and I have heard (from frat boys nonetheless) that if someone drinks their alcohol they have an obligation to put out. That’s one reason I’m not in a frat 🙂
I believe this is the law in every state. Alcohol is believed to impair one’s ability to give consent when present in any amount. And one needs to legally give consent before legally having consensual sex. But I am looking for people’s opinions and not legal opinions.
Is there a difference between a college guy getting a girl almost black out drunk and having sex with her and between a wife giving her husband a glass of wine before bed and then having sex with him? I think there is but I want to hear opinions……
edit two: No means and always means no but I am talking about a situation where the other party does give their permission (though consent is up in the air as how can one give consent when there is alcohol present)
edit3: Thanks for the legal definition. I am just going by what the textbook said which seems to not be true 🙂
Best answer:
Answer by Forget War Buy More
Yes, impaired judgement no matter how little alcohol one has does inhibit them from giving consent.
Age doesn not factor in.
There is such as a thing as martial rape. And signals mean nothing when the person does not want sex.
No means no.
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